First you have to understand I am not an accountant so what may seem obvious to you could be rocket science to me.
Here goes. When a bank gives you a mortgage on say 50% of your property value does that mean they have effectively placed a charge on your house and can list 50% value on their balance sheet as an asset?
There is a reason for me asking this question but if I told you I would then have to shoot you.
Would appreciate some help on this as it would be useful information at the moment.