A client has had a staff member resign. The staff member has said they want paying for all the unused holiday they didn't take over the past few years. I have to admit I wasn't aware that you could do that, every contract I have had it has been made clear that either I could carry some forward one year at the partner's discretion, or more often that they were used or they were lost. The idea that I would still have some from years ago and should be paid for them now is an odd one to me. My opinion is 'Unless the contract says you can carry holiday forward indefinetely and get paid for anything you don't use' then the employee doesn't get paid for them.
But stranger things have happened and I am open to the possibility this might be true. Any ideas anyone?