One of my clients who has 100% ownership of his limited company, wants his wife to have 50% ownership of the company.
The company has been trading for three months and has not made profits at this stage.
The husband currently owns 100 Ord Shares in his company:
- Would it better to issue 100 ord shares to wife or transfer 50 of his shares to his wife?
- They would be no tax implications since the company has not been a profit? Does HMRC needs to be informed? If so, what is the process?