Client purchases an item with no VAT as the seller was not VAT registered, therefore it was outside the scope of VAT, does he then charge VAT on the item when he come to sell it?
TIA
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If it is a taxable supply, and the client is VAT registered, of course they would apply VAT to the item. Why would you think otherwise?
You might think otherwise because it might be eligible for the second hand goods margin scheme, where VAT is not charged, but is accounted for by the seller on the margin (subject to the rules of the scheme)
I was speaking generally, hence my final question.
As ever, the anonymous feature ensures that the quality of question and information provided is very poor.
It's a taxable supply, as opposed to outside the scope, albeit the supply is made by a non-taxable person (assuming the seller was not required to be registered).