We currently use one large multifunction A3 copier, that is on a five year lease, with about two years left to run.
Historically we have tended to end this agreement after about three years and start a new five year agreement.
Would I be correct in thinking that the outstanding finance balance on the old agreement tends to be rolled up into the amount on the new agreement - and thus we are paying, in effect, for five year agreements over three years?
Apologies for my confused thinking, any comments appreciated.