My client's former Accountant has initiated a Court Court Summons that my client activated a client-service agreement and failed to pay the amount agreed. However, the true case of the matter was THAT no actual agreement was signed No invoice was issued! In the court summons NO documented evidence was attached. My client has asked for 28 days to reply to the claim. Please advice on what area of Law he needs to base his reply upon and what really makes a client-service agreement. Even in a case where invoice wasn't issued but the old Accountant claimed it was. How can we dispute this in law?