Ask a stupid question.
First you have to understand I am not an accountant so what may seem obvious to you could be rocket science to me.
Here goes. When a bank gives you a mortgage on say 50% of your property value does that mean they have effectively placed a charge on your house and can list 50% value on their balance sheet as an asset?
There is a reason for me asking this question but if I told you I would then have to shoot you.
Would appreciate some help on this as it would be useful information at the moment.
- Claiming annual pension allowance top up in SATR 144 2
- Leaving the VAT FRS Scheme or trying to stay as long as possible? 178 3
- Xerocon 2016 1,216 35
- Mortgage Reference 531 8
- Rounding errors on CT600 232 7
- Insovent companies 882 19
- New Build 189 1
- Entrepreneurs' Relief upon sale of a cash rich company 2,295 48
- BrightPay quirks 203 2
- HMRC now overriding SA bank repayment details on tax returns 804 20
- Website Content 159 1
- Personal Tax 628 12
- Starting band for savings - for 2014/2015 179 1
- USA Tax Query 302 2
- Website costs (intangible assets) tax relief 437 5
- last minute request 655 6
- buying asset and settling vendor's debt 351 6
- Posting invoices with balance brought forward 389 7
- Disengagement Help! 1,739 25
- Is HMRC Basic Tools basically wrong? 988 6