Following a divorce several years ago, a house was purchased for the former wife, but the ex-husband also had an interest in the ownership of the property.
The ex-husband has never lived in the property, but has never owned another property since, as he has either rented property or lived with relations.
Now the property is about to be sold, will his share be subject to CGT, or can he claim PPR as he has never owned another property?
Sharon Phillips
Replies (2)
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I would tend to agree with Paul
and as it was acquired post divorce and never lived in by the ex he would be due no PPR relief for his share at all
Haven't researched it
I haven't researched it specifically for this reply, but my understanding is that the husbands PPR ended when he moved out, possibly with the addition of the last three years of ownership.
As far as I'm aware he doens't get a continuing PPR as he is not living in the property.