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Thats right
but Yasir who does like to pay lease expenses when having no intention of getting into a contract :)....
Yes
One hundred percent, as long as the expenses were incurred with the intention of entering in an agreement wholly, exclusively, and necessarily for the business.
Whoa up
A bit too quick off the mark here. A good general principle with abortive expenditure is to ask oneself whether, if it was not, a tax deduction is competent as a revenue expense.
The lease in the hands of a lessee is a capital asset and the legal outlay here would not be allowable. On the other hand, a lessor , having a rental business , should be able to claim the expense if linked to a short lease.