Legally correct ?
Simple question really - tax payer signs the declaration to have a refund paid to someone else (ie their agent)
Do the Inland Revenue have a legal right to ignore it ?
Historically we have subby refunds paid to us, deduct our fee and pass on the balance. This year the tax man has decided to "overlook" these signed declarations and repay direct to the tax payer who thinks we have been paid (as in previous years) and spends the money quick leaving us unpaid.
Tax man states they have done nothing wrong and are not interested
Any comments ?
- New build property to be rented 28 1
- Spanish Assets taxation - UK Residence 29 1
- Sorry - another PPR question 143 2
- Outstanding Loans 183 3
- RTI and Advances to Employees 36 1
- Networking 824 7
- Allocation of income from property 608 22
- Services by BVI Company for UK Company 72 2
- bookkeeping system 440 7
- Private company division 278 4
- Sharing ODBC Excel Pivot Tables over network 109 2
- Company car in the LLP 93 1
- 64-8 problems 302 4
- flat rate scheme 1,793 37
- Are any of you members of The Institute of Financial Accountants - Accountnats certificate 870 11
- PPR relief - deemed residence? 318 9
- Unpaid share capital 202 2
- Bad debt receipt for dissolved company 136 1
- VAT Refunds 164 2
- Company van paid by director 306 3