Legally correct ?
Simple question really - tax payer signs the declaration to have a refund paid to someone else (ie their agent)
Do the Inland Revenue have a legal right to ignore it ?
Historically we have subby refunds paid to us, deduct our fee and pass on the balance. This year the tax man has decided to "overlook" these signed declarations and repay direct to the tax payer who thinks we have been paid (as in previous years) and spends the money quick leaving us unpaid.
Tax man states they have done nothing wrong and are not interested
Any comments ?
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