non-dom

non-dom

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Can anyone help here ?  When was domicile first use as a qualification for the receipts basis for tax on offshore income ?  No tax case refers to domicile until 1932 and I suspect that what happened was that at one time all offshore income was taxed on the receipts basis - but does anyone know ?

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By User deleted
08th Mar 2010 15:30

Marty McFly

Would be the best person to ask.

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By WhichTyler
08th Mar 2010 15:37

Older than that...

According to this:

http://www.guardian.co.uk/uk/2002/apr/11/politics.economy1

 

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By Simon Sweetman
08th Mar 2010 16:30

thanks

Thanks, whichtyler - that's the best I've found all day !

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