I have a client company who has received a batch of invoices from a supplier i year after the services were supplied. Can the supplier legitimately claim payment ?
faiyaz nurmoahmed
Replies (2)
Please login or register to join the discussion.
Seven years I think
If they can show that the services were provided they will get judgement easily. Interest will not run until 1 year after invoice date.
Did they receive the services?
If so, then why shouldn't they be paying for them? You don't often get something for nothing. (Didn't they notice that they hadn't been invoiced? Were they trying to be dishonest deliberately?)
(If you want to post an anonymous query, that isn't the way to do it - you should have followed the instructions on the 'Any answers' main page.)