CAs on car that had private use then was 100% business
Can someone remind me what to do about this please?
A taxi driver has had his car for four years; it was 80% business for two years then 100% business for two years because he bought another car for private use. It's still sitting in its single asset column in my comps. He sold it in 10/11 and there is a residual unclaimed value of about £2500 (potential balancing allowance) to deal with. Should I have t/f it to the general P&M pool back when the usage changed? Or can I claim the balancing allowance (adjusted for historic private ppn?) now on the basis that it should still be in its single asset pool due to historic usage?
Thanks for any help on this.
- Multiple for fee bank purchase 130 4
- Business lending another business money (UK) 306 9
- Manufacturer cashback on fixed asset purchase 38 1
- Does anyone have an old version of Sage for sale? 267 7
- Family Partnership 284 9
- Problems viewing AWeb posts 178 5
- CIC Abbreviated Accounts 191 6
- Business trips - director and family 418 3
- Signed accounts for bank 662 15
- flat rate scheme 2,373 50
- Restriction of trading loss and overlap relief 168 2
- Rollover relief - No new asset purchased 328 5
- Can I prepare dormant accounts? 184 2
- How do you integrate prepaid expenses in to the cash conversion cycle? 92 2
- What route into accountancy would you recommend? 850 12
- Deferring dividends on paper 204 5
- VAT Query on new build 126 1
- How to format Co-operative Accounts 116 1
- P11D Car Value 273 6
- NOVA declaration 112 1