CGT wife transferred half share of property to husband in 1994
A client transferred half of the value of a flat that she inherited in the late 80s to her husband in 1994. They now want to transfer ownership to their son.
Can I still calculate the husband's share as including indexation allowance at the point that the original transfer was made? I seem to remember lots of articles suggesting that transfer was a good idea, prior to indexation being discontinued for individuals. Please can someone let me know if I am right or wrong on this point.