ESC C16

More of a discussion point than a question, and apologies if this has already been discussed but - in absence of any firm guidance on the point - I have a query about the proposed new legislation. (Treat this post as made after 1 March 2012).

The new legislation will apply, inter alia, where a company has applied, or intends to apply, to be struck off. That seems straightforward enough. So what happens if there are, say, £40k of distributable reserves? The legislation catches, if there is more than one, the aggregate of dividends falling within the legislation. So, if application has been made to strike off and a dividend, or dividends, totalling £40k paid the new legislation will catch the whole lot. Again, seems straightforward.

But what if application to strike off has not yet been made? The obvious solution would be to pay a dividend of £15,001, apply for striking off, and then distribute the balance - as a capital distribution. But at what point does a dividend stop being a 'normal' dividend and become a dividend in anticipation of a dissolution (so that it is taken into account in working out whether the £25k limit is breached)?

Comments

ESC C16

dudologist@yaho... | | Permalink

As you say, previously the £40k would have be considered, by HMRC concession, to be a capital distribution. In terms of the timing, one would have declared the amount of the distribution to the inspector when writing to him/her when "providing ... certain assurances ... before the event" (to quote the original text of the concession.)

 

My reading is that from 1 March it will be the case that the timing of distributions becomes immaterial - because the inspector will not be able to allow any amount over £25,000 to be treated as capital. So whether the £15,000 is distributed earlier or later, it will in either case be treated as income.

I guess the only planning point is to make sure that you leave as close to the £25k as possible for treatment as capital.

What do you think? Did I miss your point?

Best wishes,

Du.

 

 

 

 

BKD's picture

You did miss my point

BKD | | Permalink

Because under the new legislation - as I read it at least - if one pays a dividend of £15k and then a dividend of £25k, both will be taxed as income if the earlier one is treated as made in anticipation of dissolution.

ESC C16

thomas34 | | Permalink

I agree with your interpretation BKD.

In my experience companies that cease trading with say £100K or £200K of reserves tend to be retirement situations where the directors/shareholders do not always need the whole distribution of their monies immediately.

Depending upon the taxpayers' other income and whether spouses are involved I can foresee companies being kept alive for two or three years to take advantage of their standard rate bands to mop up dividends. I'm never sure whether these companies are treated as dormant throughout this period but my fees are certainly far less than the likely £5K charged by an IP.

Once you get over the £100K or £200K level I guess you just bite the bullet and appoint an IP.

 

 

 

 

BKD's picture

But ...

BKD | | Permalink

... not really any close to an answer to my question

ESC C16

thomas34 | | Permalink

The answer to your question is that nobody knows because it's not yet been tested.

HMRC have stated "If the total distributions made by the company in anticipation of its dissolution do not exceed £25,000 there is no change to the current position" i.e. treatment under CGT rules.

I believe that "distributions" in the plural is referring to shareholders in the plural and if HMRC had intended to cover more than one series of distributions they could have worded this more precisely.

I don't believe they'll be particularly bothered about reclassifying £25K of capital distributions as £25K of income distributions. So the last distribution before striking off under Section 1003 CA2006 will be the one to get right.

 

BKD's picture

Now we're getting somwhere

BKD | | Permalink

Though I'm not convinced about the interpretation of the plural. Normally when one talks about a distribution of profits, it means exactly that - a distribution of its profits amongst its shareholders, whatever the number of those shareholders.

I suppose we'll just need to wait and see what the explanatory notes and any HMRC guidance say on the matter.

ESC C16

thomas34 | | Permalink

Or you could telephone Andrea Pierce on 020-7147-2591 or e-mail her at andrea.pierce2@hmrc.gsi.gov.uk as suggested by the Revenue guidance on the subject.