Recently met with a new client who had setup a company a couple of years ago in case he wished to buy a property through it.
Looking through the accounts I note that the previous accountant has the property in the balance sheet as well as a DLA for the same amount, even though the client insists that he owns it personally.
Does anyone see a problem with this, given that the stated accounts show a different ownnership than the deeds?
I would add that the client is not sure he wants it owned by the company and just left it up to the previous accountant.
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Proof
I would want to see proof of whether the property is owned personally or by the company as I would be inclined to trust the previous accountant rather than a new client.