Too obvious??

I need someone to put me back on the straight and narrow please!

New client.

Director uses a personal credit card for significant amount of business expenditure.  At the year end, there is an amount owed to credit card company which has always been shown as a creditor in the accounts.

At the same time, the directors loan account is overdrawn - by more than the credit card balance, but it makes up a big part of it.

Surely, as it is a private credit card, it should reduce the director's loan and not be shown as a creditor?

Or am I missing something?