What is the best response to this please?

What is the best response to this please?

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I was recently made redundant because my boss, a sole practitioner, was retiring. However he has continued to work for the company that bought him out, and as a favour I helped him with some work after I left his employment, as he hadn't made arrangements for the new company to do this particular work immediately after I left. I always had a pleasant working relationship with this man but after I had done the work he told me I would have to send my invoice to the new people, whom I have never met. I sent it to them, with an explanation of the circumstances, and now they are telling me he hasn't authorised the work, and so far it remains unpaid. This is an embarrassing situation which I never imagined I would have to face. What would be my best approach to resolve it please?

Replies (3)

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By johngroganjga
20th Jan 2015 05:14

A difficult situation indeed but surely the first step is a simple rebuttal of the assertion that the work wasn't authorised, preferably asking the individual concerned to corroborate your version of events, and all backed up with documentary evidence if it exists.

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By Tim Vane
20th Jan 2015 06:53

Why are you invoicing the new company? You state that your original employer asked you to help because he hadn't made arrangements with the new company to do the work.  So send the invoice to him, and tell him to sort it out one way or the other. If he tells you again to go to the new company tell him he'll have to send it to them himself.

Don't be afraid to bill him and chase him for the payment. No matter what your relationship with him was in the past, he seems to be treating you shabbily now and you should not put up with it.

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By andy.partridge
20th Jan 2015 10:04

On balance I agree with Tim Vane. There is no evidence that I can see that your former boss was authorised to commit the firm to paying you.
It's a lesson to us all to sort out the financial agreement before work is started.

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