Hi
Suppose:
* Company A owns product P
* P is managed by company B
* The sales contract is between A and customers
* A has a contract with B such that B receives all revenue generated by P
Could B directly take payments from customers on behalf of A such that the sales contract is still with A? Or does A have to receive sales payments then pay it all to B?
It might be a bit convoluted, so thanks for your patience in advance.
Thanks
Replies (1)
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It mainly depends, I think,
on the VAT status of A & B. If you literally mean the cash then I can see no reason why B cannot collect income due to A as long as it is matched to relevant invoices passed between the companies.