Have a client who was 50% shareholder and joint director of his own company until a couple of years ago. Sold his shares to the other director and resigned as a director at the same time, but had not been an employee for over a year prior to the sale. Is the fact that he was still an officer of the company sufficient for him to have ER, as the company was still trading in that year?
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Director- officer
If he was still a director at the time of sale, that is sufficient - he does not need to be an employee as well. His 50% shareholding is more than enough to qualify for ER.