These tables reflect announcements made between December 2011 and March 2012.
Is it possible to transfer a personally owned investment property into a limited company without incurring CGT, assuming it shows a profit on cost of course?
An individual owns a campsite/caravan park.
The park trades through a limited company although the individual is the owner of the freehold.
With the legal position unclear around the precise status of pre-2003 capital loss claims on unapproved employee share options, HMRC is turning the screws to try and encourage claimants to cave in,
I understand that receipts for dilapidations may be treated in one of three ways depending on the circumstances.
Trying to figure out capital gains for an uk resident individual on share disposals from 2002 onwards. Having difficulty finding information on the various changes to CGT during those years. Pr
A question which ended up as a confusing muddle.... if anyone can shed a light or give me pointers I would be so grateful! Situation......
My client owns 1/3 of a residential property, his father owns the other 2/3. He wishes to gift his1/3 share to his father. How would this share be valued for CGT? i.e.
I have a client who is resident in France but owns and rents UK property. He moved permanently to France in 2007 but has owned the property portfolio for some time before that.
My question is simple - will you help defeat this pernicious proposal the second time round? You will remember that previously HMRC suggested that in legislating ESC C16, which allows distributabl