Client is additional rate taxpayer and transferred various shares to wife (who is a basic rate taxpayer) over the years.
Hopefully somebody can clarify this...
These tables reflect announcements made between December 2011 and March 2012.
Is it possible to transfer a personally owned investment property into a limited company without incurring CGT, assuming it shows a profit on cost of course?
An individual owns a campsite/caravan park.
The park trades through a limited company although the individual is the owner of the freehold.
With the legal position unclear around the precise status of pre-2003 capital loss claims on unapproved employee share options, HMRC is turning the screws to try and encourage claimants to cave in,
I understand that receipts for dilapidations may be treated in one of three ways depending on the circumstances.
Trying to figure out capital gains for an uk resident individual on share disposals from 2002 onwards. Having difficulty finding information on the various changes to CGT during those years. Pr
A question which ended up as a confusing muddle.... if anyone can shed a light or give me pointers I would be so grateful! Situation......
My client owns 1/3 of a residential property, his father owns the other 2/3. He wishes to gift his1/3 share to his father. How would this share be valued for CGT? i.e.