Hoping someone can provide a little guidance for a small accounting issue I have.


I refer here to interest free loans (repayable on demand) to family members (thus gratuitous) where the interest foregone is deemed to be a gift for IHT purposes (according to IHTM14317).


If I want to become a shareholder in a private company, do I have to buy the shares at their "market value"?


Did a thunderbolt strike near to the Pay Day Loan industry when Justin Welby threw down the gauntlet hinting that credit unions could put them out of business?


The government has extended its start-up loans scheme to those aged up to 30 with an additional £30m to the funding pot.



I thank you in advance for any replies I get. Here is the scenario that I'm having an issue with.


Your FICO score isn't a mysterious number drawn out of hat. Rather your FICO score is an exact algorithm based on your credit.

I act for a number of companies under common control, that, over the years, have built up loans that will probably never actually be paid.

Controversial payday loan firm Wonga has launched a new service offering finance to help small businessesman


 An individual has loaned money to a company and has decided to waive rights to interest annually.  There is an agreement for x% over base.  Previously the loan has been paid.