I have owned a property since November 1998 which I paid £55K for. It was my PPR until April 2007 when I started to rent it.
I am advising a company on the purchase of its own shares from a shareholder going her own way.
A client sells electronic services to business customers in the UK and to some within the EC. The customer buys an annual license to use the web based software.
Can anyone provide a view on the environment we find ourselves in post Jones v Garnett and the splitting of income between spouses as business owners?
when is a dividend taxable on the individual?
I have a client with a black cab who has had a business records check home visit - having failed the phone 'interview'.
If an employer pays into an employee's SIPP would that be an allowable deduction for the employer?
Is there a limit on the amount the employer can pay?
Thanks in advance.
I have quite a lot of new PAYE schemes to setup for the new tax year 14-15
I will like to know if there is further treatment of a Dividend received by a business owner.
this is possibly (hopefully!) a very basic question.