One company, trading as four fairly distinct divisions, wants to sell one of the divisions.
My client is a self employed "girl Friday" who has incurred a number of expenses that she recharges to her clients.
An invoice has gone through a companys books, and it relates to "financial planning" for the director themselves. There is only 1 director / owner.
So it used to be that you had 5 years from the 31st January following the tax year in which the later of the disposal or purchase occurred to make a claim. So for a claim relating to 05/06 you had
Client adjusted director's salary during year, but continued to pay the old (higher) salary for a while.
I have been asked to act for an executor. The partner of a business died aged 85 and his wife has been ill for some time and she has been incapable of trading or being sufficiently compis mentis
Company has a year end 31 December and is a member of LLP with 31 March year end.
An agent buys goods from a 3rd party for supply to a client, as instructed by the client. Assume this will be treated as a legitimate disbursement for VAT purposes.
We retail high end motor cars and have started to be asked the question by customers of saving the 2.5%, by giving us large deposits/prepayments prior to the vat increase in January 2011.
I have come across a case from previous advisers where partners have split profits 50:50 in the accounts but 100:0 in the tax computations and Partnership Tax Return. I would have thought the rati