I currently have a taxi driver client that uses his car 95%+ for taxi driving, so I use actual costs based on that.
He has recently bought some bookmaker pitches at some racecourses and plans on spending 20 ish days a year carrying out the trade. Would he be able to claim mileage allowance for travelling to the races or should it be treated as a percentage of motoring costs? (obviously using a split based on both self employments) If mileage is allowed I would of course reduce the pecentage on motoring costs for the taxi.
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I am, of course, assuming it's the same vehicle?
If so, I thought claims were based on the 'vehicle' regardless of 'trade'?
If client is self-employed, then DKB-Sheffield is correct with regard to the "45p/mile for first 10,000 miles etc" being per vehicle.
Obviously if you're talking about an incorporated business then that won't apply.
However apparently obvious, it's always helpful to state clearly the status of the client and the precise name of the scheme/relief/allowance in question.
For instance it sounds like you may be proposing to use different schemes for the two 'trades' despite it being the same vehicle and same taxpayer - which is not likely to be allowed, but not sure exactly what you are proposing?
Had one before
Added up the costs and apportioned by mile
Business 1 60%
Business 2 20%
Private 20%
BUT get the capital allowances clear in your mind
Bus 1 Disallow 40%
Bus 2 Disallow 80%