Family company with shares of different classes but equal rights being held by parents and daughter. Company wishes to pay differing dividend levels to reward relative work done in the company. HMRC gives an example suggesting sufficient profits should have been available to have paid the higher dividend rate to all classes, we are having some debate as to whether cumulatively there should be enough retained profits to have paid the "equal" dividends year on year. I.e. do we need to track individual pots of dividends not drawn, as if those dividends had been waived.
If anyone can point me to a definitive answer or resource on this I would appreciate it.