I have just encountered my first potential associated company situation and would be grateful if anyone can confirm my logic - correct or not!
Company 1 - 50% A and 50% B (A and B are sisters)
Company 2 - 50% A and 50% C (A and C are married)
The trade of both is completely different.
I understand that married couples are treated as one but that sisters aren't necessarily if the trade is completely different.
Am I correct in thinking that Company 1 and 2 are not associated because person A is not in fact in control of Company 1.