A client's property (shop) suffered subsidence and she has received various insurance payouts:
25000 for shop-fittings of which spent 9950 on replacements and 15050 unspent (WDV was 5365)
30000 paid direct to supplier for shop-fittings
18500 for business interruption
I would be really grateful if someone could advise treatment of capital allowances as I've read contradicting things!
Thanks a lot