Hi Guys just a quick query. I think I already know the answer is no but wanted to check.
Client has a rental property, which was her main residence prior to let.
She purchased an additional property with the intention of letting that one also, and as a result incurred expenses bringing it up to standard for letting.
She didn't end up letting the property in the end for whatever reason and moved in instead.
She has asked if the expenditure can still be offset again her first rental. Revenue and capital with regards to future cgt.
My feeling is no even though her intention was to let, it was never actually let and only ever became her main residence.
However as always id appreciate your thoughts on the matter as to whether I'm correct or not.