Probably a really basic question but here goes.
If 3 shareholders sets up a limited company with a 1/3 each. With the shares being a nominal value say a £1.
They subsequently introduce £10 k cash into the business each after the shares were issued.
if one shareholder then wanted to sell their shares assuming no profits have been made. the shares would be valued at £10k because that's a third of the net assets.
Does that mean they would crystallise a CGT charge on £10k, because there shares at cost was just the original £1 they paid. Or can the £10k subsequently introduced be netted off against their gain?
Again sorry if this is really basic. Any help much appreciated.