Can someone remind me what to do about this please?
A taxi driver has had his car for four years; it was 80% business for two years then 100% business for two years because he bought another car for private use. It's still sitting in its single asset column in my comps. He sold it in 10/11 and there is a residual unclaimed value of about £2500 (potential balancing allowance) to deal with. Should I have t/f it to the general P&M pool back when the usage changed? Or can I claim the balancing allowance (adjusted for historic private ppn?) now on the basis that it should still be in its single asset pool due to historic usage?
Thanks for any help on this.