Our client has sold a property which was originally acquired in 1998 jointly in equal proportions between our client and her husband. When her husband died in 2017, his share passed to her. There was no valuation made at the time.
I'm preparing separate CGT comps in respect of the two half shares, and taking an acquisition value at the date of her husbands death based on a straight time apportionment.
Does anyone see any issues with this approach?