I have a client who purchased a property in 1988 and lived in it until 2006 when she bought another property with her partner so moved to that one and let out the initial property until 2013.
The second property she resided in was jointly owned till 2010 when she bought her partner out and then rented it out, staying with friends at that point, also renting that property out until 2013 when she moved back into it.
The first property was rented till mid 2013 whereupon renovation work was required. This is still owned.
Client having renovated the first property now wishes to sell it.
Am I right in thinking she will be able to claim PPR on the first property along with Lettings relief and thus negate any possible CGT payable on sale?
I must admit that this is buzzing around my head at a confusing rate of knots at the moment.