An individual owned a rental property and swapped it with his mother, with her transferring the family home to him. The client had always lived in the family home. The value of the family home was £25k less than the rental the mother ended up owning so it is the mother that ended up gaining at that stage but as it was a disposal of the PPR no CGT was payable. The loss made by the son is not being claimed as there will be no further transactions with the mother. I just wondered if someone could clarify that the base cost for the mother on her recent sale of the rental becomes the value at the date of the swap.