Miss A and sister bought flat 50-50.
Some years later, Miss A married Mr B and they bought sister's share, sharing the cost 50-50.
They became 50-50 owners, as evidenced by deeds and share of (later) rental income.
At this point, has Miss (now Mrs) A paid for 75% of the flat but only owns 50% of it? and has Mr B acquired 50% but only paying 25% ?
Then Mr and Mrs move away, buy new main home and rent flat out for a few years.
Then they sell it.
Some PRR of course, but has Mrs A made a loss because she paid more in her two tranches of acquisition than is her 50% share of disposal?
And has Mr B made a large gain because he's got 50% of disposal when he only ever paid 25% of acquisition?
Very many thanks for any insights. If I have missed something obvious I apologise in advance and plead the middle of January excuse.