My client aquired shares via a Company Share Purchase Scheme where salary was used to buy shares each month. The original tranch was purchased in 1992 and there also been share splits when he received 2 for 1. As the shares are in a US based company he would like to sell the shares and wants to work out any capital gains. Any help and advice would be greatly appreciated.
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Err, the usual way? Proceeds less cost? What am I missing?
You're missing nothing that I can see, unless the question is really asking how should he calculate the value of the shares for sale. In which case, methods are pretty much universal. EBITDA, anyone?
You're missing nothing that I can see, unless the question is really asking how should he calculate the value of the shares for sale. In which case, methods are pretty much universal. EBITDA, anyone?
Absent anything to the contrary, I assumed the proceeds were the proceeds and cost was cost as “the salary was used to buy shares each month”. But anyone’s guess if there are relevant facts we are not given.
But anyone’s guess if there are relevant facts we are not given.
It's a Company Share Purchase Scheme.
It's a Company Share Purchase Scheme.
Is that a specific arrangement with its own tax rules and is it a UK Company Share Purchase Scheme or a US Company Share Purchase Scheme?
Nor does anyone here.
Has your client tried asking the employer for the info?