There’s lots of threads such as https://www.accountingweb.co.uk/any-answers/director-invoicing-own-company when the director in question is sole shareholder.
My scenario is slightly different and one that I can’t find an answer on anywhere...
My client (Mr A) will be MD of newco, a JV. He will be 25% shareholder, with the silent partner (ltd) holding the remaining 75%. I’m unsure as to whether the silent partner will have a representative director or not. It’s something we have the ability to insist upon if required. Mr A also has an industry specific consultancy company (B) with multiple clients. Newco and B are in the same industry.
A’s remit is to run newco for a fee (obviously). The question is, can he invoice from B? I would like to argue that he receive a nominal salary for being a director (maybe one of 2 directors, which I guess may strengthen the argument, especially is director 2 is on the same salary?), say £500pcm, and invoice the remainder from B for consultancy services, with a consultancy contract.
What do you think?