A client lived in his flat for several years then moved to the US for work. He rented out his UK property while abroad and then moved back on his return to the UK (4 years later). He then sold the UK flat approx 1 year after that.
He was renting a property in the US while working there.
I am aware that renting a property to live in does give him an interest in that property . Am i correct that as his UK property was rented out for the majority of his time abroad, it was therefore not available for his use as a residence and no PPR election was required? On this basis the full gain on the UK property would be covered by his PPR exemption (due to the deemed occupation rules)