This potential client is a sole director of a Indian and UK IT consultancy Companies
The customer is based in the UK and the UK company invoices the Indian Company. The IT work is carried out in India and then the Indian Company invoices the UK company for services.
The contract is between the UK Company and its UK customer.
The UK director signs the contract on behalf of the UK company but is there a chance of the Indian company being perceived as having a permanent establishment in the UK ?