I've recently moved back into practice so I might be nitpicking.
Client has put through a clear estimate for mileage in the company records, the opposite entry to an overdrawn loan account.
My questions: would you insist on a proper expense claim? In industry I would never put through estimates.
Second, is this allowable for tax. I didn't think so, but I've been overruled.
Just wanting to check if it's me "overegging" and worrying unnecessarily.