Goodwill & FRS 102 Section 1A?

What is the correct accounting treatment of goodwill under FRS 102 Section 1A

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Hi,

I am under the impression that for example if a company started trade 1 Jan 2006, had a 31 Dec year end date, acquired goodwill of £100,000, and this was being written off over 20 years, then under old rules at 31 December 2015 £50,000 would have been amortised. Applying FRS in the transitional period I was under the impression that you looked at goodwill right from the start and applied the FRS 102 10 year amortisation rule from that date, which in my example would have resulted in the goodwill amortisation at date of transition being NIL. Is this correct? I have seen accounts prepared by others which follow this method, but others where the 10 year amortisation is being applied from date of transition, based on NBV at that point. Also, if the former is the correct treatment, and the goodwill is tax deductible, can the company claim a 'one off' amortisation deduction for the accelerated amortisation in the transitional year?

Thank you

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By paulwakefield1
10th Nov 2017 12:48

The accounting answer is "either". Your basic premis is correct but there is a transitional option that allows for the residual value at the date of transition to be amortised over the remaining life. The 10 year limit is not a rule but only used "in exceptional cases". Commentators feel that there should be no need to amend the useful life if it was reliable in the first place. i.e. if it was being written off over 20 years (as many did) and the only doubt, presumably, was how much over 20 years the life might be then continue with the 20 year life.

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Replying to paulwakefield1:
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By cdmasq
28th Nov 2017 09:00

Thank you very much. Sorry to ask another question, to be honest I don't deal with many limited company accounts, and this is the first FRS ones where goodwill applies. My thinking is that because the goodwill is tax deductible, if I do make a transitional adjustment so it is fully amortised as transition date I can claim a one off 'accelerated amortisation' expense against profits for tax purposes. Do you agree, I don't want to do anything that will flag up with HMRC!
Thanks very much for your help.

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Replying to cdmasq:
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By paulwakefield1
01st Dec 2017 17:44

Sorry for the delayed reply - I have been away. Tax is not my field and I must leave that aspect to others better qualified to answer.

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