Upon purchase of a furnished holiday let it is agreed, that under a guaranteed rental agreement with the owner of the site, an annual income of 5% of the cost of the unit will be paid to the owner of the unit for the first two years. It may or may not be relevant that bookings can be made either through the site owner or a national letting agency, but the availability criteria is met. However, if the property is not let for 105 days, although there is a guaranteed income, does this mean that it cannot be treated as a furnished holiday let?
(The letting income will vary depending on high season, low season etc.)
All replies will be welcome.