Starting to think about 16-17 for clients in more detail, and modelling the office templates etc.
Suppose in round terms:
Client has earned income £32k and dividend £8k.
The Dividend Allowance covers £5k of the dividend, the balance taxed at 7.5%
Now suppose client has Capital Gain of £4k over AE?
Logically, I think the element of dividend covered by the Dividend Allowance is still using BRB, so BRB fully used and CGT is all at 28%
HMRCs guidance implies dividends being top slice of income, but doesn't go on to indicate how this effects banding for, say, CGT (or for that matter PA abatement).
HMRCs own examples are quite simplistic - welcome to .gov world I guess, and noddy language publications.
Anyone any thoughts? (other than tax and logic not going in the same post)