Hi. New here so grateful for any help. To cut a long story short I am a 10% shareholder and ex-director of a company without the resources to pay me the ~£300k I am owed in back pay and bonuses. I am kissed that goodbye as, although the majority shareholder and director has personal assets I understand that the principle of the 'corporate veil' means that the best I can hope for is pursuing the company for unpaid wages, forcing them into insolvency and waiting in line for crumbs from the administrator. However, I am also owed dividends from the past 11 years totalling £150k. If the majority shareholder paid himself his 90% of the declared dividends in full is he in any way directly personally liable for my unpaid dividends? Thanks for any advice. And, yes I know that I have been a complete mug..!