Is VAT chargeable?

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Client purchases an item with no VAT as the seller was not VAT registered, therefore it was outside the scope of VAT, does he then charge VAT on the item when he come to sell it?

TIA

Replies (13)

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By mrme89
28th Feb 2017 09:21

If it is a taxable supply, and the client is VAT registered, of course they would apply VAT to the item. Why would you think otherwise?

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Replying to mrme89:
JCACE
By jcace
28th Feb 2017 10:45

You might think otherwise because it might be eligible for the second hand goods margin scheme, where VAT is not charged, but is accounted for by the seller on the margin (subject to the rules of the scheme)

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Replying to jcace:
By mrme89
28th Feb 2017 10:55

I was speaking generally, hence my final question.

As ever, the anonymous feature ensures that the quality of question and information provided is very poor.

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By JCresswellTax
28th Feb 2017 09:30

I don' think that 'thinking' was involved here.

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Replying to JCresswellTax:
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By crazyfrogg123
28th Feb 2017 12:43

ive had enough of your bullying jessica. reported

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Replying to crazyfrogg123:
By JCresswellTax
28th Feb 2017 14:15

My name isn't Jessica.

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Worm
By TheLambtonWorm
28th Feb 2017 09:53

I guess it depends on where/who the buyer is.

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Replying to TheLambtonWorm:
By Ruddles
28th Feb 2017 10:06

And what the item is

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Replying to Ruddles:
Worm
By TheLambtonWorm
28th Feb 2017 12:56

That too!

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Hitch photo
By Kevin Kavanagh
28th Feb 2017 09:56

Anonymous, what a surprise.

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By User deleted
28th Feb 2017 11:22

when he come to sell it.............

Give me ******* strength.

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By cbp99
28th Feb 2017 12:52

It's a taxable supply, as opposed to outside the scope, albeit the supply is made by a non-taxable person (assuming the seller was not required to be registered).

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By Dick Stastey
28th Feb 2017 13:32

Yes, except in those circumstances when it won't be necessary.

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