Client and his sister inherited a house in Nov 1999 with the proviso that it would be occupied by their mother for as long as she wanted to and could only be sold when she had left, which whe did in June 2017. In accordance with the will mother paid no rent only rates, insurance and maintenance costs. The house was sold in March 2018
My client is the brother and my question is:- Which is the purchase price ?
The probate value in 1999 or the value when the property was free of mother and could be sold
There is a difference of about £200000 so it matters
Thanks for your wisdom