Client is resident in UK & owns a holiday home in Spain. Each year he completes a Spanish non resident tax return & pays tax to the Spanish govt even though he has zero rental income. Is this payment of tax in any way allowable against the client's UK tax?
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Forever hopeful
As your client would not have any source of income in Spain that would also be subject to UK tax there would be no UK income that could have the Spanish Tax set off against any UK tax
Good luck