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no - presuming thats full and complete information with individual receiving full personal allowance and tax year is 19/20 or later
note dividends falling within personal allowance can be received tax free in addition to 2k allowance that is taxed at 0%
I vote no. the £828 divs (which I assume is what you are wondering about) falls in the 0% band.
I know I've said it before but I still think it's true. Once in a while it's worth reading some of the "basic" legislation (by which I mean the legislation that gives us the basic principles) to see how it all fits together.
You might be happy that s13A ITA 2007 answers your question (that answer being as rmillaree and SteLacca have said). But think about what you already know in applying s13A - in particular, that dividends are the "top slice" - and where those rules come from. And then there's....
…. actually, no, I better shut up. I'm starting to sound deeply sad, aren't I?!
The problem I see it is that this point has been drummed into us over the years. But you have to inter relate this with Section 23 Step 3 and Section 25 (2) which, since 2016, in particular has caused the confusion that most suffer from... know in applying s13A - in particular, that dividends are the "top slice" - and where those rules come from. And then there's....
A man after my dragon heart!
The jigsaw is fun, isn't it? [Though I am glad to have very few clients from Scotland, Wales, or Northern Ireland. Those are sections I'm happy to dance merrily past!]
The top slice bit comes from s16, of course. I don't think we need to over-involve Ss23-25 in this one.
Remind me what happened in 2016?
