An individual purchased a house in 2000, he lived in this house until 2018. At this point he let the property and moved in with his partner (now wife since last month)
He changed his address with HMRC in 2018 (not a formal notification of a change in PPR but just a change in corr address), is there any angle to treat this subsequent period as if the existing house could still be his PPR? Or is this not possible as the property was being let during this period. He didnt own any other property.
I am sure I am missing something here so any help would be much appreciarted.
Replies (5)
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is there any angle to treat this subsequent period as if the existing house could still be his PPR?
No
Do you think you may be missing the small detail of the property being let during the period you want ppr to apply?
No
Common misconseption with clients
"I only own one house so it must be tax free"
Only one PPR per married couple
Potentially relevant question though if the husband and wife ever move back to the husband's house in the future and husband is seeking the up to 3 years for any reason exemption.
Staying with his partner would have negligible capital value and the one PPR per married couple would only have kicked in last month if that's when they got married.